What is the maximum of
$$\begin{aligned} f:(0,\infty) &\to\mathbb{R} \\ x&\mapsto\frac{1}{\lambda^k(x+\lambda)^2} \end{aligned}$$ where $\lambda>0$ and $k\ge 1$?
Am I naive to think that it is simply $1/\lambda^{k+2}$ without performing any differentiation tests?
In any case, solving $$f'(x)=-\frac{2}{\lambda^k(x+\lambda)^{3}}=0$$ for $x$ seems very nontrivial.
The function does not attain its maximum on $(0,\infty)$. However, its supremum is as you say $\lambda^{-(k+2)}$. It is attained at $x=0$, but $0\notin(0,\infty)$.