My first thought was $(26/52 \times 4/51)$, but then I realized this expression doesn't take into account that the first draw could be a queen as well.
Then I considered $(26/52 \times 3/51)$, but this one doesn't look right.
I also considered the sum of these two $(26/52 \times 4/51) + (26/52 \times 3/51)$, since it considers the two possible cases (if the first draw were or weren't a queen), but I wouldn't know how to defend it further than that.
Just added an Addendum to the end of my answer, to provide a shortcut.
Consider
$$\left[\frac{24}{52} \times \frac{4}{51}\right] + \left[\frac{2}{52} \times \frac{3}{51}\right]. \tag1 $$
In (1) above, the first term refers to the combined probability of drawing a black non-queen, followed by any queen. The second term refers to the combined probability of drawing a black queen, followed by any queen.
Since the two terms refer to mutually exclusive events (i.e. either the first black card is a queen or it isn't), and since they encompass all of the ways of drawing a black card and then a queen, you can add the two terms to get the desired probability.
$\underline{\text{Addendum}}$
Shortcut:
Let
$E_1~$ denote the event that the first card is black.
$E_2~$ denote the event that the first card is red.
$E_3~$ denote the event that the second card is a queen.
Then, by symmetrical considerations,
$$p(E_1) = p(E_2), ~~\text{and} ~~p(E_3 ~| ~E_1) = p(E_3 ~| ~E_2).$$
Therefore,
$$\frac{1}{13} = p(E_3) = [ ~p(E_1) \times p(E_3 ~| ~E_1) ~] + [ ~p(E_2) \times p(E_3 ~| ~E_2) ~]$$
$$ = 2 \times [ ~p(E_1) \times p(E_3 ~| ~E_1) ~] \implies $$
$$p(E_1) \times p(E_3 ~| ~E_1) = \frac{1}{13} \times \frac{1}{2}.$$
More intuitively, $~E_1~$ and $~E_3~$ are independent events.