I was working on proving that a statement ...
$ p \to \lnot(\lnot q \land (p \to q))$
... is a tautology using logical equivalences and wound up at this step:
$ T \lor F $
I'm unsure if the output would be true or not, or if its too ambiguous to get an answer from this. Thanks!
The $\lor$ is true iff at least one of the disjuncts is true. So, $T \lor F = T$