What relation is between these two pictures featuring two families of orthogonal circles?
Picture-I : Found this while searching about conic sections.

Picture-II : Found this in this video.

Why the two figures are similar?
What relation is between these two pictures featuring two families of orthogonal circles?
Picture-I : Found this while searching about conic sections. 
Picture-II : Found this in this video. 
Why the two figures are similar?
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One of the references is from "Excursions in Geometry" by Charles Stanley Ogilvy (Dover, 1990) where it is explained using circles of Apollonius.
This figure features two families of circles
Those passing through two fixed points, say $(-1,0)$ and $(1,0)$,
Those orthogonal to each circle of the first family.
There are different ways to consider, and work, with this fascinating figure. Here are two of these treatments :
The blue circles have common equation
$$f(x,y):=x^2+y^2-2ax+1=0\tag{a}$$
where $(a,0)$ is the ordinate of their center (see Remark 3 below for an indication of proof).
The red circles have the characteristic property to pass through fixed points $A(1,0)$ and $B(-1,0)$. It is easy to show (exercice!) that their common equation is:
$$g(x,y):=x^2+y^2-2by-1=0\tag{b}$$
where $(0,b)$ is the ordinate of their center.
Let us show that any red circle is orthogonal to any blue circle. Let us add relationships (a) and (b), and multiply the result by 2:
$$4(x^2+y^2-ax-by)=0\tag{c}$$
(c) can be written:
$$2(x-a).2x+2y.2(y-b)=0$$
$$\Leftrightarrow \ \ \ \binom{2(x-a)}{2y}.\binom{2x}{2(y-a)}=0$$ $$\Leftrightarrow \ \ \binom{\partial f/\partial x}{\partial f/\partial y} \ \perp \ \binom{\partial g/\partial x}{\partial g/\partial y}\tag{d}$$
The gradients of $f$ and $g$ are orthogonal at intersection point $(x,y)$, therefore giving the orthogonality of the corresponding circles.
Fig. 1 : Left: the initial plane of variable $w$ ; right: the "image plane" of variable $z$ with conformal transformation (1) "mapping" ("bending"...) the first set of orthogonal lines onto the second set of orthogonal circles.
The transformation is encapsulated into the following function
$$w \in \mathbb{C} \mapsto z=\dfrac{e^{w}+1}{e^{w}-1} \in \mathbb{C} \tag{1}$$ which is differentiable, therefore transforms a certain set of curves (here straight lines) into another set of curves (here circles) while preserving their ($\pi/2$) angles.
Remarks :
$$w \in \mathbb{C} \mapsto z=\tan w \in \mathbb{C} \tag{2}$$
evoking some Earth representation (with meridians orthogonal to parallel lines) or the field lines generated by a magnet...
Fig. 2 : The effect of transformation (2). This figure is plainly Fig. 1 with a $\pi/2$ rotation. This isn't in fact surprizing because replacing $w$ by $iw$ in (1) gives the formula for a (co)tangent (up to a replacement of $w$ by $w/2$ and multiplication by $i$)
See example 6 of this document which explains how (a) can be derived from (b) by solving a certain differential equation.
Transformation (1) can be written :
$$x+iy \ \mapsto \ z=\dfrac{re^{iy}+1}{re^{iy}-1} \ \ \text{with} \ \ r:=e^{x}$$
where we recognize in $re^{iy}$ the polar representation of a complex number. In this way, we see that the underlying basic transformation is :
$$w \ \mapsto \ z=\dfrac{w+1}{w-1}$$
The family of blue circles can be understood in the following way (Apollonius' approach). Any of them can be defined as the set of points $M$ such that the ratio $\dfrac{MA}{MB}$ is constant for a given circle. This is connected to the previous remark, because $\dfrac{MA}{MB}=\left|\dfrac{w+1}{w-1}\right|$ (see the reference I gave at the beginning).
Constant coefficients $1$ or $-1$ in equations (a) and (b) are called the power of the origin with respect to each family of circles. It is an efficient tool when working on circles.
See also Fig. 2 there.
Here is the Matlab program that has generated Fig. 1 :