This equivalence was used in my statistics course to prove that the sample mean is an unbiased estimator when the sample has:
- a mean "mu"
- a variance "sigma^2"
On Wikipedia I found that this equality doesn't always hold true:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Expected_value
(Under Uses and appliances it says that: https://wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/b866cf6a1cae9adf1d0fee60b0c0fe0633c6b9f1)
Is there a general rule for when E[g(x)] = g(E[x]) ?