A bike has probability of breaking down $p$, on any given day.
In this case, to determine the number of times that a bike breaks down in a year, I have been told that it would be best modelled with a Poisson distribution, with $\lambda = 365\,p$.
I am wondering why it would be incorrect to use a binomial distribution, with $n=365$. After all, isn't Poisson really an approximation of a sum of Bernoulli random variables?
Thanks!
Poisson distribution
Binomial distribution
Emphasis mine
For the Poisson you need a known interval (365 days) and a known failure rate (average failures per day - Note: this can be any number $> 0$). For the Binomial you would need a fixed number of trials (365) and a known failure rate per trial (failure chance on a given day Note: this must be a number $\in [0,1]$).
For the specific question, it is a matter of interpretation and both could be justified here.
The Poisson is more appropriate if it is conceivable that the bike could break on a given day, be repaired and break again (and again etc.). For minor failures this is appropriate.
The Binomial is more appropriate if a failure on a given day takes the bike out for the rest of the day (but not for more than that because it would then reduce the total number of days). That is, a moderate failure.
I know from your earlier question here that this is then combined with a Gamma distributed cost - there is no mention of the time the repair takes. If there were, this would be a fairly typical queuing problem which typically uses Poisson distributions. I must say that it was this that led me towards the Poisson.