I'm trying to understand how the odds of flipping a fair coin $4$ times in a row and landing heads each time is $\frac{1}{2^4}=\frac{1}{16}=6.25\%$;
But at the same time if I've just flipped the coin heads $3$ times my odds of it landing heads a fourth time are $50\%.$ These numbers seem to contradict one another.
I think I figured it out when I was writing this question, but wanted to confirm. Of the 16 possible ways that $4$ coin flips can go, $2$ have $3$ consecutive heads (below). So if I flip heads $3$ times and am about to flip it a fourth, there are two possible outcomes:
$$ % inner array of minimum values \begin{array}{c|cccc} \text{series} & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4\\ \hline 1 & T & T & T & T\\ ... & ... & ... & ... & ...\\ 15 & H & H & H & T\\ 16 & H & H & H & H \end{array} $$
making the probability of getting a fourth head $= \frac{1 outcome}{2 possibilities} = 50\%$. Is this correct?
Yep, that's correct!
Here's another phrasing that may make it clearer:
Originally, you have 16 possible options for 4-flip sequences. Both HHHH and HHHT have the probability of 1/16, and so are all the others.
After you've flipped 3 heads, you've narrowed it down to just HHHH and HHHT, and the probabilities are equal.
The probability of HHHH is 1/16. The probability of HHHH given that you've already flipped 3 heads is 1/2. The difference between the scenarios is information - specifically, the information that you've already made some of the flips.