Sorry,this might be a dumb question, but I couldn't really understand it. If we define Bezier Curves as:
$B(t) = \displaystyle\sum_{i = 0}^{n} P_i\binom{n}{i}t^i(1-t)^{n-i}$
when t and i are zero it becomes:
$B(0) = P_0\binom{n}{0}0^0(1-0)^{n}$
So here we get $0^0$, isn't this undefined? How can $B(0)$ be equal to $P_0$
Similarly, let's assume there is a third degree Bezier Curve with points $P_0$ $P_1$ $P_2$
$B(t) = P_0t^3(1-t)^0+ 3(t)^2(1-t) + 3(t)^1(1-t)^2 + t^0(1-t)^3$
for $t = 0$, isn't this also undefined? I think I am rather confused with binomial theorem than bezier curve