I plugged into google calculator (because that is what I had on hand) $\mathrm{abs}(i)$ and it was said that equaled $1$. Is that true? And if so can I have a proof that it is true?
Note:
As a HS student taking AP Calculus my math proofs are not very advanced but I do understand the non textbook proof (mathematical proof) so if you would answer with a less formal proof I would very much appreciate it.
For a complex number $z$, you can think of $|z|$ referring to the distance between $(0,0)$ and $z$ on a complex plane. (you can think of absolute value as the distance between the origin and your number. e.g. $-3$ and $3$ are both $3$ away from 0)
We find the distance using Pythagorean theorem:
$$ | a + bi | = \sqrt{a^2+b^2} $$
so if we add our values:
$$ \begin{align} &\sqrt{0^2 + 1^2} \\ =&\sqrt{1} \\ =&1 \end{align} $$