Let $X, X_n$ be $\mathbb{R}^d$-valued random variables. The solution for an exercise uses the following step without further comment: $$P(\limsup_n |X_n-X|>0)\le P(|X_n-X|>\frac 1 k \text{ i.o. for some } k\in \mathbb{N})$$ As far as I know, I should however be able to rewrite $\limsup$ on the left as follows, which seems a bit of a jump: $$P(\limsup_n |X_n-X|>0) = P(|X_n-X|>0 \text{ i.o.}) \le P(|X_n-X|>\frac 1 k \text{ i.o. for some } k\in \mathbb{N})$$ Can somebody please explain why this step is allowed?
2026-03-31 17:54:46.1774979686
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Why does $P(\limsup_n |X_n-X|>0)\le P(|X_n-X|>\frac 1 k \text{ i.o. for some } k\in \mathbb{N})$ hold?
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As stated, this is wrong unless you add some more conditions. Consider $X \not=0$ a.s. and consider the random variables $X_1 = 0$ and $X_n = X$ for $n\geq 2$. Then $\mathbb{P}(\limsup_n |X-X_n| > 0) = \mathbb{P}(|X-X_1|>0)=\mathbb{P}(|X|>0)=1$. But if $n\geq 2$, then $|X-X_n| = 0$ a.s. and for any $k$ we have that $\mathbb{P}(|X-X_n|>\frac{1}{k}) = 0$. So your statement is wrong because this fact holds for all $k$.
$\{\limsup_n |X_n - X| > 0\} \subseteq \{|X_n - X| > 0 \text{ i.o.}\}$, but equality does not hold.
To show $\{\limsup_n |X_n - X| > 0\} \subseteq \{|X_n - X| > 1/k \text{ i.o. for some $k$}\}$, modify the argument in first bullet point slightly.