It could easily be shown that when jacobian never vanishes a continuously differentiable function is one to one. But we simply say that if jacobian never vanishes then the inverse transformation exists. How? How did we make sure that it's onto.
2026-04-02 04:31:48.1775104308
Why does the Jacobian of a transformation never vanishing implies that the transformation is onto
209 Views Asked by user346936 https://math.techqa.club/user/user346936/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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