This is an excerpt from Discrete Mathematics.
Universal generalization is the rule of inference that states that ∀xP(x) is true, given the premise that P(c) is true for all elements c in the domain. Universal generalization is used when we show that ∀xP(x) is true by taking an arbitrary element c from the domain and showing that P(c) is true. The element c that we select must be an arbitrary, and not a specific, element of the domain.
That is, when we assert from ∀xP(x) the existence of an element c in the domain, we have no control over c and cannot make any other assumptions about c other than it comes from the domain. Universal generalization is used implicitly in many proofs in mathematics and is seldom mentioned explicitly. However, the error of adding unwarranted assumptions about the arbitrary element c when universal generalization is used is all too common in incorrect reasoning.
I have two questions:
1. What is meant by the second paragraph ?
2. How come just by taking arbitrary c in domain, we can conclude that if P(c) is true then so is ∀xP(x). (There may exist some counterexamples).
This paragraph is (in my opinion) a little less than clear, but it is trying to give a description of what "$\forall x \; P(x)$" means. It means that, if you give me any $x$, $P(x)$ is true. I am not allowed to request any particular kind of $x$; there is no assumption that $x$ is blue or $x$ is greater than $3$. $P(x)$ is true for all $x$, not just for some particular $x$s which satisfy some particular assumptions.
This results in a common error in proving $\forall x \; P(x)$, but it does not come in so much in using $\forall x \; P(x)$. The error is that one proves that $\forall x \; P(x)$ holds by proving it holds for some particular kind of $x$'s, which is not allowed. To prove $\forall x \; P(x)$ holds, you must show that $P(x)$ is true, under no assumptions about $x$.
Universal generalization can be stated as the following:
To get a grasp on this rule (which is one of the more counter-intuitive ones!) you should try to get a grasp on the part and we have assumed nothing about $c$. What does that mean? It means we really could have proven $P(x)$ for any value of $x$, not just $x = c$; the same proof would apply! So we have actually shown that $\forall x \; P(x)$.
You are right that we could not prove $\forall x \; P(x)$ just by proving $P(c)$ for some particular $c$. However, if we prove it and we have made no assumptions about that particular $c$, then that $c$ is in some sense "general"; without loss of generality we may say that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$.