I have been looking at $p$-adic numbers recently. Unless I am mistaken, if $$ \alpha = \sum_{i=0}^\infty a_ip^i $$ then we write $$ \alpha = 0.a_0a_1a_2a_3\dots $$ With this we would get that $1 = 0.1$. That is, the multiplicative identity in the field $\mathbb{Q}_p$ is $0.1$.
What I don't understand is why we don't say that $$ \alpha = \sum_{i=0}^\infty a_ip^i $$ is equal to $a_0.a_1a_2a_3\dots$
instead so that $1=1$.
EDIT: I would like an answer so that I can accept. If you would include in that answer a discussion of why the convention above is good for $p$-adic numbers, that would be appreciated.
I think the most compelling reasons are that
It is common to solve algebraic equations over the integers by proving a priori bounds on their size, finding all solutions over $\mathbb{F}_p$ for some "good" prime $p$, Hensel lifting the solutions digit by digit until we reach the bounds and either find or rule out an integer solution. Prominent examples include
We frequently use continuity of $p$-adic functions to summarize infinite families of congruence relations among integers. For example,