It's as (simple) as the title says, but I can't figure out why that is.
How can I show (I think I need small, tiny steps) that $$\frac{\partial f(tx)}{\partial (tx_i)}t=t^k\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}$$?
My textbook says "If $f(x)$ is homogeneous of degree $k \geq 1$, then $\partial f(x)/\partial x_i$ is homogeneous of degree $k-1$". How come?
Where f is a function $f:\mathbb{R}_+^n \mapsto \mathbb{R}$
Fix $t>0$. Then $$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(tx)=\lim_{\Delta x\to 0}\frac{f(tx+\Delta x)}{\Delta x}=\lim_{\Delta x\to 0 }\frac{f(t(x+\Delta x))}{t\Delta x}=t^{k-1}\lim_{\Delta x\to 0}\frac{f(x+\Delta x)}{\Delta x}=t^{k-1}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(x)$$