Why is the $0$th percentile of the standard normal distribution $-\infty$?
I can't explain the cause except saying there is no area under the curve. So it goes beyond the bell-shaped curve.
Why is the $0$th percentile of the standard normal distribution $-\infty$?
I can't explain the cause except saying there is no area under the curve. So it goes beyond the bell-shaped curve.
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Have you taken calculus? It is because $$\lim_{t, x \to -\infty}\int\limits_{t}^{x}f(s)\text{ d}s = 0$$ where $f$ is the equation of the graph of the standard normal distribution.