A book I'm reading says:
Let $\theta(x)$ be the Heaviside function... Since $\operatorname{sgn}(x)=2\theta(x)-1$, its characteristic function will be: $$\chi_{\operatorname{sgn}(x)}(t)=\frac{2i}{t}$$
I understand why $\operatorname{sgn}(x)=2\theta(x)-1$, but I don't follow the claim about the characteristic function. If the CDF of $X$ is the Heaviside function, then $X$ is a.s. zero, and the sign of $X$ is a.s. zero, and the characteristic of a random variable that is a.s. zero is $1$. How does $2i/t$ come into it?
The word characteristic function is misleading.
Here $\theta(x)$ is not the CDF of a random variable, we are looking at the Fourier transform of $\theta(x)$ not of $d\theta(x)=\delta(x)dx$.
This Fourier transform exists only in the sense of distributions, it will be $PV(i/t)+\pi \delta(t)$ ($PV$ for principal value).