Why is the etale map an open map?

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In Proposition 5.59 (page 276) of his book An Introduction to Homological Algebra, Rotman states that an etale map is always an open map on sheaf space. (5.59iii)

Proposition 5.59 Let $\mathcal{S} = (E, p, X)$ and $\mathcal{S}' = (E', p', X')$ be etale-sheaves over a topological space $X$.

(iii) Every etale-map $\varphi \colon \mathcal{S} \to \mathcal{S}'$ is an open map $E \to E'$.

Proof. The sheets form a base of open sets for $E$.

Why does this follow?

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Fact: If $f: X \to Y$ is a function between spaces and $\mathcal{B}$ is a base for the topology of $X$, then $f$ is an open map iff $$\forall B \in \mathcal{B}: f[B] \text{ is open in } Y$$

This is proved simply by observing that for families $A_i \subseteq X, i \in I$ we have that $f[\bigcup_i A_i] = \bigcup_i f[A_i]$ and knowing that open sets are unions of basic open sets and open sets are closed under all unions.

So you're done showing openness if the image of a "sheet" under an étale map is open.

This is clear, as the definition of étale-map implies that for a sheet $S$ of $p$, we have that $\varphi[S] = (p')^{-1}[p[S]]$, where the left to right inclusion follows from $p'\varphi=p$ and the right to left one uses the local injectivity of $p$. So $\varphi[S]$ is open as $p[S]$ is open by the local homeomorphism part of the protosheaf definition and $p'$ is continuous.

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I don't think the hint given in the book works. But we can proceed as follow.

Lemma. Let $g:X \to Y$ be a continuous map. Suppose that $f:Y \to Z$ and $h:X \to Z$ are local homeomorphisms, such that $fg=h$. Then $g$ is an open map.

Proof. Let $U$ be an open set of $X$. We want to prove $g(U)$ open.

For all $x \in U$, there exists open neighbourhoods $x \in U_1 \subset X$, $h(x)\in V \subset Z$ and $g(x)\in W\subset Y$, such that $h|_{U_1} : U_ 1 \to V$ and $f|_W : W\to V$ are homeomorphisms.

$g$ continuous $\implies$ $g^{-1}(W)$ is an open set of $X$ containing $x$. Put $U_0 = U \cap g^{-1}(W) \cap U_1$, then $U_0$ is an open neighbourhood of $x$. We have $f|_W \circ g(U_0) = h|_{U_1}(U_0) \implies g(U_0) = (f|_W)^{-1}(h|_{U_1}(U_0))$. Then $g(U_0)$ which is a subset of $g(U)$ containing $g(x)$ is open in $W$, thus open in $Y$. So $g(U)$ is open. $\square$

We apply the above lemma to $p' \varphi =p$, where $p'$ and $p$ are local homeomorphisms.