The multivariate normal distribution is the only multivariate distribution we ever hear about. We never hear about other multivariate distributions such as the multivariate binomial, multivariate exponential, etc.
Is there any reason for this? Is this simply due to the fact that if multiple random variables individually have some distribution - it does not mean that their joint distribution has that same distribution at the multivariate level? Is it possible to prove this?
Thanks!
First, it's not and lots of places talk about other distributions, although it is more popular. But reasons for it's prominence could be:
Also, it's just easier to work with then other distributions.