By using the Compact-to-Hausdorff property, I have shown that there is a homeomorphism between $[-1,1]\diagup\sim$ where $\sim$ is defined to be the equivalence relation $-1 \sim 1$.
Now I know that $[-1,1)$ is strictly not homeomorphic to $S^1$. Here is my confusion: in some sense, isn't $[-1,1)$ the same as $[-1,1]\diagup\sim$?
Another clarification would be useful to me: $[-1,1)$ is not homeomorphic to $S^1$ because, loosely, on the circle $-1$ and $1$ are very close, but in the interval they are not. Thus, the function $f(t)=(\cos(\pi t), \sin(\pi t))$ between $[-1,1)$ and $S^1$ cannot be continuous. I am not really sure on this reasoning - if we take an open set about the point $(-1,0)$, then is its inverse under $f$ not an open set in $[-1,1)$?
Any help would be appreciated!
Yes, there is an obvious bijection between $[-1,1)$ and $[-1,1]/\sim$ ... but ...
I'll say first that even from the perspective of set theory, having a bijection between two sets is not the same as saying that those two sets are "the same".
Even worse, if you are concerned not just with sets but with topological spaces, then having a bijection is a very, very far cry from having a homeomorphism. Starting with $[-1,1)$ and $[-1,1]/\sim$, there are many, many examples of two topological spaces which have a bijection between them but no homeomorphism. Here's just a couple more: