Let $(\Omega,\mathcal{F},P)$ be a probability space, $\mathcal{G}$ sub-$\sigma$-algebra of $\mathcal{F}$, and $X\in L^1(P)$.
We have $$\begin{aligned} Y & := E(X|\mathcal{G})\\ & = E(X^+ - X^-|\mathcal{G})\\ & = E(X^+|\mathcal{G}) - E(X^-|\mathcal{G})\\ \end{aligned} $$
As $E(X^+|\mathcal{G})$ is non-negative and $-E(X^-|\mathcal{G})$ is non-positive we have $Y^+=(E(X^+|\mathcal{G}) - E(X^-|\mathcal{G}))\vee 0 = E(X^+|\mathcal{G})$ and similarily $Y^-=E(X^-|\mathcal{G})$. Thus, $$ \vert Y\vert = Y^+ +Y^- = E(X^++X^-|\mathcal{G}) = E(\vert X\Vert\mathcal{G})$ $$
In most texts, I just see $\vert Y \vert \leq E(\vert X\Vert |\mathcal{G})$, so whats wrong about the above?
Thank you.
$Y^+=(\mathbb E[X^+\vert\mathcal G]-\mathbb E[X^-\vert\mathcal G])\vee0$ is wrong. If $a,b>0$ it is not true that $(a-b)^+=a$. Take for instance $a=b=1$.
If you want a counterexample for this triangle inequality, just take $\mathcal G$ the trivial $\sigma$-algebra on $\mathbb R$, that is $\mathcal G=\{\emptyset,\mathbb R\}$ and $\mathbb P(X=1)=\mathbb P(X=-1)=1/2$. Then $\vert\mathbb E[X\vert\mathcal G]\vert=\vert\mathbb E[X]\vert=0$ but $\mathbb E[\vert X\vert\vert\mathcal G]=\mathbb E[\vert X\vert]=1$.