Take some function such as $f(x)=x\sin x+3x-1$, or $g(x)=xe^x-2x+3$. These functions don't have a closed-form inverse (I know this because in general we are told that these should be solved numerically, as there is no analytic way of solving equations such as $f(x)=0$).
Why do they not have a closed-form inverse? Is there any way of justifying this?
Briefly, because the equations you'd need to solve to get a closed form of this inverse are transcendental equations. You might also find the following article helpful.
Edit: Some more info - it might seem that if you end up with an equation of the form $x=h(x)$ where $h$ is a transcendental function, then you're out of luck and can't find a closed-form solution for $x$. However, this is not the case, for example $$\sin x = x$$ can be completely solved by eyeballing $x=0$ as the only solution (and this is admittedly a closed-form way to settle things!). The point is that transcendence is more correctly understood as preventing the existence of closed-form solutions for a class of equations instead of for a single equation. This is similar to the sense in which there is no general formula involving only the elementary algebraic operations and taking radicals to solve a polynomial equation of degree $5$ or more, and yet we can deal with many special cases (and indeed entire sub-classes of such polynomial equations).
So, briefly: transcendence is no magical excuse to stop thinking :) and with practice and over time you will develop a feeling for which equations are hopeless and which not so much.