This question might have even been asked here before, I don't really know, so sorry if it's duplicate. I've started to study topological spaces and I've found the axioms for such spaces kind of hard to motivate. Well, the ideia of a metric space is much easier to motivate: "the concept of distance is context dependent, so we want a general idea of what distance is and a general idea of a set on which we can measure distances". The axioms then for a metric are very intuitive, easy to motivate and everything else.
Then we start studying properties of subsets of metric spaces. We define open balls as a way to make precise the notion of "the set of all points that are sufficiently close to a central point" and we define open sets to make precise "sets such that for every point, other points sufficiently close are also in the set", which can also be thought as sets such that each point can be oscilated a little bit from it's position and the point will stay on the set.
After that we can define lots of things: limit points, closed sets, dense sets, perfect sets, compactness and so on. We also see that all of those notions can be made precise mentioning the open sets alone: the metric is not really necessary to talk about those things, as soon as we can define what open sets are. So this is enough motivation to define a structure on which we have open sets.
The answer to this problem is to define a topology on a set $X$ as a set $\mathcal{T} \subset \mathcal{P}(X)$ such that $\mathcal{T}$ is closed under arbitrary unions, finite intersections and such that $X,\emptyset \in \mathcal{T}$. If, $X$ is a metric space, and we let $\mathcal{T}$ be the set of open sets as they are defined using balls, then the three properties are satisfied.
My only question is: why those properties capture completely the idea of an open set? I mean, amongst all properties of open sets, why do we select those three? I've always heard that topology is meant to study qualitatively global properties of forms, that's the way we start in $\mathbb{R}^n$ and the way we generalize to metric spaces: we introduce tools that allows us to define carefully some of these properties and we work out definitions. It doesn't seem clear the connection of this motivation for topology and the actual definition.
I've seem a similar question on MathOverflow, and there was one answer trying to motivate this in terms of rulers, but I really didn't get the idea. Can someone give a little help with this?
Thanks very much in advance!
The notion of open set may best be comprised by "If $x$ is in the open set, then all points with $y\approx x$ should please also be in the set".
This makes $\emptyset$ and the space $X$ itself open automatically - either because there is no $x$ to check or no $y$ that could complain.
And still without specifying further what $\approx$ really means, it follows immediately that an arbitrary union of open sets is open again.
We could stop here, but these axioms alone don't make a good structure yet. Thus it is motivated to have a look at the "other" set operation, intersection. If we have two open sets (with possibly different interpretations of $\approx$, say $\approx_1$ and $\approx_2$) it seems to be a nice feature to assume that any two points that are witnessed in two ways as being not too different are not too different and vice versa, i.e. that the conjunction of $\approx_1$ and $\approx_2$ should make a valid $\approx$, so the intersection of two open sets should be considered open again. And there we are. One might consider some strengthening, such as arbitrary intersections, but as already the case of metric spaces shows, this will more often than not boil down to considering the power set of $X$ (or possibly with some points identified), so quite boring.
In hindsight, it is just the case that these axioms very nicely give us practically all the nice properties of metric spaces plus applicability to some interesting structures that do not allow a metric.