With regard to distributive law of inner product in vector algebra

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Consider the equality

\begin{align*} &\vec{a}\cdot\vec{b}+c=0 \\ \implies &\vec{a}\cdot(\vec{b}+\frac{\vec{a}}{\vec{a}\cdot\vec{a}}c)=0. \end{align*}

If the above equation is valid for any $\vec{a} $, can we say the following equation is valid?

\begin{align*} &\vec{b}+\frac{\vec{a}}{\vec{a}\cdot\vec{a}}c=0\\ \implies & \vec{b}=-\frac{c}{|\vec{a}\cdot\vec{a}|}\vec{a} \end{align*}

I feel something (in particular, with regard to sign) is wrong.

Can the above process be justified? If not, let me know the reason.

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The answer is clearly wrong, because it says that $\vec b$ is proportional to $\vec a$, i.e. they must point in the same direction. But if you add to any such $\vec b_0$ a vector $\vec{b'}$ which is perpendicular to $\vec a$, then the product $\vec a . (\vec b_0+\vec{b'})$ is the same so your first equation still holds for any $\vec b=\vec b_0+\vec b'$. This equation tells you the component of $\vec b$ along $\vec a$, but the component of $\vec b$ perpendicular to $\vec a$ is completely arbitrary.

The error comes in the step (which you rightly have a question mark against) that your second equation is true for all $\vec a$, so the bracket must be zero. This works for $a f(b,a)=0\ \forall\ a \implies f(b,a)=0$ but not for $\vec a.\vec f=0 \ \forall \ \vec a \implies \vec f=0$. You cannot create 3 equations from 1 equation.

The glitch in @InertialObserver's proof is that their $\vec b$ is a different $\vec b$ for $i=1,2,3$.