I have the recurrence$$a_{n+2}-a_n=1$$
The answer I got was $a_n=A+B(-1)^n+\frac n 2$, while WolframAlpha is giving me $a_n=A+B(-1)^n+\frac n 2- \frac 1 4$.
Although when I plug them in the relation, both work. What's going on here?
My guessed particular solution was $a_n=n\cdot k$.
E: After adding the initial conditions $a_0=1, a_1=0$ I got the same answer as WA. Thanks!
Wolfram Alpha isn't wrong because $A - \frac{1}{4}$ could be anything. So in fact they're equivalent.
$A$ and $B$ are arbitrary constants.
The general solution is given by the sum of the particular solution (which you know how to find) and the general solution to $b_n - b_{n-2} = 0$.