I know that $\zeta(n) = \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^n}$ (Where $\zeta(n)$ is the Riemann zeta function)
But the reciprocal of $\zeta(n)$ for $n$ a positive integer is equal to the probability that $n$ numbers chossen at random are relatively prime. But why? Can you give a proof?
Here is a very rough sketch of the idea :
We have the following : $$ \zeta(n) = \sum_{k \ge 1} \frac 1{k^n} = \sum_{k \ge 1} \prod_{p^{k_p} || k} \frac 1{(p^n)^{k_p} } = \prod_{p} \sum_{k \ge 0} \left( \frac 1{p^n} \right)^k = \prod_{p} \frac 1{1-\frac 1{p^n}}. $$ (You need to work out the details for all the convergence issues and these are treated in pretty much all good elementary number theory books.)
Now if we choose $k_1, \dots, k_n$ integers independently and uniformly over the interval $[1,x]$, one roughly expects that $p | k_i$ with probability $1/p$. The fact that $(k_1,\dots,k_n) = 1$ means that there is no prime which divides all those integers at once. $p$ divides $k_1, \dots, k_n$ with probability $1/p^n$ assuming independence, hence the probability we are looking for is roughly $$ \prod_{p \le x} \left( 1 - \frac 1{p^n} \right) \underset{x \to \infty}{\longrightarrow} \prod_p \left( 1 - \frac 1{p^n} \right) = \frac 1{\zeta(n)}. $$ You probably need to understand better what happens when $p$ is relatively large compared to $x$ to work out the error terms, but the basic ideas are all here.
Hope that helps,