I do realize that there is a elementary proof of this result which follows from applying the formula $$\binom mk=\frac{m \cdot (m-1) \cdot \ldots \cdot (m-k+1)}{k!}.$$
I do wonder if there is an elegant counting trick that leads to this?
$$\binom mk+\binom m{k-1}=\binom {m+1}k$$
Let $M = \{1,2,\ldots,m+1\}$ and $X$ be the set of all $k$-subsets (subsets of size $k$) of $M$. We are going to count the elements of $X$ in two ways.
(1) The obvious answer is $$\#X = \binom{m+1}{k}.$$
(2) Now we count by making the distinction if the $k$-subsets contain the element $m+1$ or not: There are $\binom{m}{k-1}$ $k$-subsets of $M$ containing the element $m+1$ , and $\binom{m}{k}$ $k$-subsets of $M$ not containing the element $m+1$. So $$\#X = \binom{m}{k-1} + \binom{m}{k}.$$
Equaling those two expressions for $\#X$ yields the considered identity.