I am reading the textbook "Introduction to Modern Algebra, Joyce 2017" and in the Cyclic groups and subgroups section, there is a following sentence about involution.
An involution $a$ is an element of a group which is its own inverse, $a^{-1} = a$. Clearly, the order of an involution $a$ is $2$ unless $a = 1$, in which case the order of $a$ is $1$.
I was trying to come up with a concrete example, but I am having difficulties. Maybe when $a = \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}^2 = 1$? I also searched the wikipedia page for a concrete example, but wasn't able to find anything.
Can someone provide an example with numbers for me please? I want to understand why the author writes "clearly" that the order of an involution $a$ is $2$. Thank you
Example: in the cyclic group $\mathbb{Z}_{12}$, $6$ is an involution since $6+6=0$ in $\mathbb{Z}_{12}$. More generally, in $\mathbb{Z}_{2n}$, the element $n$ is an involution.
Notice that the requirement $a=a^{-1}$ is equivalent to $aa=1$ (just multiply both sides by $a$). Therefore an involution must satisfy $a^2=1$. So the only way it does not have order $2$ is if it has order smaller than $2$, i.e., $a=1$.