The following problem occurred to me the other day.
Given two distinct real numbers $x_1$ and $x_2$ (let's call them points in $\mathbb{R}$). Trivially, I can always find a third point that it's either closer to $x_1$ than to $x_2$ or vice-versa. In other words, I can always solve either $$ |p-x_1|<|p-x_2|\,\,\,\text{ or }\,\,\,|p-x_2|<|p-x_1| $$ for some $p\in\mathbb{R}$.
Extending this thought to $\mathbb{R}^2$ and considering three non-collinear points $x_1,x_2$ and $x_3$, can I always solve $$ |p-x_i|<|p-x_j|<|p-x_k| $$ for any permutation of $i,j,k$, where $i,j,k\in\{1,2,3 \}$ and $i\neq j\neq k$. That is, ordering $x_1,x_2$ and $x_3$ in any of the $6$ possible ways, can I always find a point which is closest to the first point, second closest to the second and so on?
It might slightly boring to prove, but I believe the answer to be yes, where non-collinearity is trivially needed. For example,
I wonder, however, how to argue when extending this problem to $\mathbb{R}^n$. That is, given $n+1$ points not lying in the same hyperplane, can I always find a point $p\in\mathbb{R}^n$ such that $$ |p-x_{i_1}|<|p-x_{i_2}|<\cdots <|p-x_{i_{n+1}}| $$ for any permutation of indexes $\{i_k\}_{1\leq k\leq n+1}$? If the answer is positive, and if there are infinitely many solutions, what kind of set is the solution set?

Go back to the $\Bbb R^2$ case first: Consider the lines $L_{12}, L_{13}, L_{23}$ perpendicular to and passing through the midpoints of the line segments $\overline {x_1x_2}, \overline{x_1x_3}, \overline{x_2x_3}$ respectively. Each of these lines divides the plane in two. All points on the $x_1$ side of $L_{12}$ are closer to $x_1$ than $x_2$, and all points on the $x_2$ are closer to $x_2$ than $x_1$.
If the three lines intersected in a triangle, then for a point $p$ inside the triangle for an appropriate relabeling $x_1, x_2, x_3$, you would find that $px_1 < px_2, px_2 < px_3, px_3 < px_1$ would hold, requiring that the distance from $p$ to $x_1$ be strictly less than itself. Hence, it must be that $L_{12}, L_{13}, L_{23}$ intersect in a single point $C$. This is the well-known result that given any three non-colinear points, one can always find a circle that passes through them.
The three lines therefore break the plane into six wedge-shaped regions having $C$ as their apex. In each of these regions the distances of points to $x_1, x_2, x_3$ is ordered per one of the six arrangements of those points, thus showing that indeed, all arrangments are possible.
For higher dimensions, instead of the $L_{ij}$ being lines, they are hyper-planes of codimension $1$. But given $n+1$ points in general position in $n$-dimensional space, there is always a point that is equidistant from all of them, so once again, all the $L_{ij}$ must intersect in that point, dividing $\Bbb R^n$ into conic regions where the distances to each of the $x_i$ are ordered per one of the orderings on the $x_i$.