I just see a demonstration on how to find the Maclaurin expansion for $\dfrac{\arctan(x)}{e^x}$
The part I don't understand I circle in red.
How does he obtains $c_0=0$? and then $c_0+c_1=1$ then $c_1+c_2=0$
And then for the third degree, why is there an $\frac{1}{2}$ that involves here?
I am very interested in this technique of find the unknown coefficients of an unknown series based on two known series.


You can see that on the RHS, there is no constant. But on the LHS, $c_0\cdot1$ is a constant, which means $c_0=0$.
Similarly, you could see, on the RHS, the term of degree $1$ is $x$ with coefficient $1$, and on the LHS the only way to get that term is $c_1x\cdot1+c_0\cdot x=(c_1+c_0)x$. That will give us $c_1+c_0=1$.
If you do this for terms on the RHS of higher degrees, you will get a system of equations of $c_i$'s and then you will be able to solve each of them (though not 100% rigorous since this solution didn't demonstrate a general equation for the term of arbitrary degree $n$).