Let $\tau_1$ and $\tau_2$ be two topologies on a non-empty set $X.$ Let the sequential convergence with respect to one of the topologies be equivalent to the sequential convergence with respect to the other. Can we conclude that $\tau_1 = \tau_2\ $?
I don't think that it is correct. Our instructor hinted that we can construct a counter-example in the space $\ell^1(\mathbb N),$ the space of all summable sequences of complex numbers. But I can't figure it out. Could anyone give me some hint?
Thanks a bunch!
Here's an easy example. For $\tau_1$ take the discrete topology on $\mathbb{R}$. For $\tau_2$ let every point be isolated, except $0$ whose neighbourhoods will be the co-countable sets. In both topologies the convergent sequences are those that are constant eventually.