Assume that we have some equality, $$ X (t) = Y(t). \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad (1) $$
I imagine that if I say "(1) holds a.s. for all $t>0$" it means that $$ P\{X (t) = Y(t) \text{ for all } t>0 \} = 1, \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad (2) $$ whereas if I say "(1) holds for all $t>0$ a.s." it means that for all $$ \forall t >0: P\{X (t) = Y(t) \} = 1. \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad (3) $$
Is my interpretation correct? Also, are there ways to distinguish between (2) and (3) unambiguously?
Addition. The question also concerns relations.
Consider some relation, for exapmle $$ X (t) \in A. \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad (1') $$
Does "(1') holds a.s. for all $t>0$" mean $$ P\{X (t) \in A \text{ for all } t>0 \} = 1, \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad (2') $$ and does "(1') holds for all $t>0$ a.s." mean $$ \forall t >0: P\{X (t) \in A \} = 1? \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad (3') $$