Let $X$ be a vector field defined on a manifold $M$. Then $X$ is differentiable if and only if the application $\psi:M\rightarrow TM$ such that $\psi(p)=(p,X_p)$ is differentiable. I have some problems trying to prove this. Any help is welcome.
2026-03-25 23:37:57.1774481877
A vector field is differentiable if and only if the map $X: M \to TM$ is differentiable
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The converse is easier, so lets do this first. Assume $X : M \to TM$ is smooth as a map between manifolds. For any $f \in C^{\infty}(M)$, the map $Xf : M \to \Bbb{R}$ defined as $Xf(p) = X_pf$. For any point $p \in M$, choose a smooth charts $(U,(x^i))$ contain $p$. In this coordinates, the value of $X$ at any point $x \in U$ is $X(x) = X^i(x) \partial_i|_x$. So $$ Xf(x) = X(x)f = \bigg(X^i(x) \frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\bigg|_x \bigg)f = X^i(x) \frac{\partial f}{\partial x^i}(x). $$ Since $X$ is smooth, then $X^i$ is smooth on $U$. It follows that $Xf$ is smooth on $U$. Since the same is true in any neighbourhood of each point, $Xf$ is smooth on $M$.
For the $\Leftarrow$ part, assume that $Xf : M \to \Bbb{R}$ smooth, whenever $f :M \to \Bbb{R}$ is smooth.
Let any $p \in U$ and $V$ be a neighbourhood of $p$ such that $\overline{V} \subseteq U$. Choose a smooth bump function $\psi : M \to \Bbb{R}$, with $\psi \equiv 1$ on $\overline{V}$ and supp $\psi \subseteq U$. Define function $\tilde{f} = \psi f : U \to \Bbb{R}$ as $\tilde{f}(q) = \psi(q)f(q)$. By extend $\tilde{f}$ to $M$ we have $\tilde{f}$ has zero value on $M \smallsetminus \text{supp }\psi$ and $$ (X\tilde{f})|_V = X(\tilde{f}|_V) = X(\psi f)|_V = X(f|_V) = (Xf)|_V, $$ hence $Xf$ is smooth on the neighbourhood $V$ of $p$. Because $p \in U$ is arbitrary, we showed that $Xf$ is smooth on some neighbourhood of each point in $U$. Therefore $Xf$ is smooth on $U$.
Next, we will prove that
To show this, assume that $Xf$ is smooth whenever $f$ is smooth on some open subset. Let $p$ be any point in $M$ and $(U,x^i)$ be any smooth chart contain $p$. Thinking $x^i : U \to \Bbb{R}$ as a smooth function on $U$, we have $$ Xx^i = X^j \frac{\partial }{\partial x^j} (x^i) = X^i, $$ which is smooth. Therefore $X|_U = X^i \partial_i$ is smooth. Since $X : M \to TM$ is smooth locally, then $X : M \to TM$ is smooth. This completes the proof.