I was studying the various types of convergence and have studied almost sure convergence.I understand that almost sure convergence means $ Pr (\lim_{n\to \infty} X_n = X) = 1 $.
I came across a statement "If $X_n \rightarrow X $ almost surely and $X_n \rightarrow Y $ almost surely then X=Y almost surely". I was trying to prove the same but was unable to do so. Any suggestions?