Assume $\mathbb{R}$ has the least upper bound property. Show that $[0,1] = \{ x\mid 0 \leq x \leq 1\}$ has the least upper bound property
My Attempted Proof:
Since $[0,1] \subset \mathbb{R}$, $[0,1]$ is an ordered set. Now take a non-empty $A_0 \subset [0,1]$ such that $A_0$ is bounded above. Since $A_0 \subset [0,1]$, and $\mathbb{R}$ is a complete field, $\exists \alpha \in [0,1]$ such that $\alpha$ is an upper bound of $A_0$.
Corresponding to this $\alpha$ take $\alpha ' \in [0,1] < \alpha$.
Now if $\alpha' $ is not an upper bound of $A_0$, then $\alpha = \sup A_0$ and we are done.
However if $\alpha '$ is an upper bound of $A_0$, put $\alpha = \alpha '$ and take a new $\alpha' < \alpha$ (here we are establishing an inductive argument) and repeat until $\alpha '$ is not an upper bound of $A_0$. Then $\alpha = \sup A_0$ and $\alpha \in [0,1]$.
Thus any non-empty $A_0 \subset [0,1] \subset \mathbb{R}$ that is bounded above, has a least upper bound, completing the proof. $\square$
Is my proof valid and correct? If so how rigorous is it? Any comments and criticism is appreciated. (If however the proof is nonsense, please say so)
Your proof lacks rigour.
You claim that you took an arbitrary set $A_0\subset [0,1]$, and then you define $\alpha$ as some upper bound of $A_0$.
So, at this point:
You then claim that
which is a false statement. For example, I could have $A_0=[0,\frac12]$, and I could have $\alpha=\frac34$, and $\alpha' = \frac14$. Then, $\alpha'$ is not an upper bound of $A_0$, but $\alpha$ is not the supremum of $A_0$.
So, your proof is wrong.
Another point where your proof is wrong is that you claim to use an "inductive" argument, but you:
Hints to rewrite your proof: