I am looking over a paper currently and am stuck on a particular step seeing how the intuition works. I know this is quite elementary but it is known:
$$P(ab\mid c)=P(a\mid c)P(b\mid c)$$
This being said I am confused how
$${P(a\mid c,d)\over{P(b\mid c,d)}}={P(c\mid a,d)\over{P(c\mid b,d)}}{P(a\mid d) \over {P(b\mid d)}}$$
If possible I would like to see the intuition in with how the above Bayesian inversion is done.
Thanks.
It's not elementary. That is true only when $a,b$ are conditionally independent given $c$.
It is also irrelevant to the following:
Bayes' Rule: $P(a\mid c,d) = P(a\mid d)\,P(c\mid a,d)\div P(c\mid d)$
Because: $~~~~~P(a\mid c,d) ~{= P(a,c,d)\,\div P(c,d) \\ = P(a,d)\,P(c\mid a,d)\div P(c, d) \\ = P(d)\,P(a\mid d)\,P(c\mid a,d)\div (P(d)\,P(c\mid d)) \\= P(a\mid d)\,P(c\mid a,d)\div P(c\mid d)}$
Likewise : $~~~~P(b\mid c,d) = P(b\mid d)P(c\mid b,d)\div P(c\mid d)$
Then: $~~~~~~~~\require{cancel}\dfrac{P(a\mid c,d)}{P(b\mid c,d)}=\dfrac{P(a\mid d)\,P(c\mid a,d)\cancel{\div P(c\mid d)}}{P(b\mid d)\,P(c\mid b,d)\cancel{\div P(c\mid d)}}$