I am new here because we got stuck with a question during the weekend's discussion.
Let's imagine we are playing a dice game. You can roll as many 6-sided dice as you want, and so can your opponents, simultaneously. The highest sum wins, but if there is at least one "$1$" in the roll, you score $0$ points in total.
Is there "the" best strategy with how many dice to roll in order to statistically (unlimited repeats) win the game? If there is, how can we prove it?
Our only starting point was the counterprobability for each throw. Each dice has a $5/6$ chance not to be a $1$. So $1-(5/6 + 5/6 + \ldots)$ should be at least a "$1$" in the throw. That's all we were able to manage, but we are missing the link to further calculations.
Thanks a lot for your help.
Edit: Thanks for the hint with 1−(5/6)^n
We are playing one round with only 2 players.
If it is a draw --> reroll with the selected number of dice
The other player does not know how many dice the other player selects.
The first win ends the game.
If you roll "1" the whole round scores "0"
To the question: Are you trying to win or trying to maximise the expected number of points? We are trying to find the best number of dice to win the game, but it never has occurred to me, the the number of dice of the other player is of relevance! Thanks for the input
Also thanks a lot for all of your comments. I really appreciate it.

The probability of not getting a "$1$" in $n$ rolls for a six-sided dice is $\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{n}$. With that in mind we can go onto calculating the expected value of each dice roll. To calculate value of one roll, $V_1$, we shall take the probability of each outcome with the value it has, so we have: $$V_1=6\cdot\frac{1}{6}+5\cdot\frac{1}{6}+4\cdot\frac{1}{6}+3\cdot\frac{1}{6}+2\cdot\frac{1}{6}+0\cdot\frac{1}{6}=\frac{20}{6}=\frac{10}{3}$$ From here we can see that the value of $n$ rolls will be $$V_n=n\cdot\frac{10}{3}$$ To get the expected value for $n$ throws, let's denote it with $E_n$, we just multiply it with probabilty of not getting a "$1$" in $n$ dice rolls: $$E_n=n\cdot\frac{10}{3}\cdot\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{n-1}$$
There are numerous ways to find maximum of $E_n$, but to keep real analysis out of this we can use simple old brute force and just start plugging in $n\in\mathbb{N}$ until we see that $E_n$ is dropping. I used python for this, and here is the graph of the calculation:
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From here you can see that $E_n$ peaks at $5$ rolls, where the expected value is $6.697959533607684$, while for $6$ rolls it is $6.697959533607683$. So in practice you'll have the same chance of winning with either of $5$ or $6$ rolls.