
Given that K = 1/36, I require some help understanding (b)
• Pr(1/2 ≤ X ≤ 1)
Is re-written as such:
Pr(X ≤ 1) - Pr(X < 1/2)
I do not understand why!
Is it because
Pr(X ≤ 1) is solved as F(1) and
Pr(X ≤ 1) - Pr(X < 1/2) = Pr(X ≤ 1) + (1 - Pr(X < 1/2))
You should understand the difference between a probability density function and a cumulative distribution function.
The cumulative distribution function, which in your case is $F(x)$, always gives the value for $P(X \leq x)$
So, $F(1)$ would give you $P(X\leq1)$ and $F(\frac{1}{2})$ would give you $P(X\leq\frac{1}{2})$. In order to find $P(\frac{1}{2} < X \leq 1)$, you calculate, $F(1) - F(\frac{1}{2})$