Consider the differential form $f dx$ in $\Omega^1 (\mathbb{R}^2)$, where $f \in C^{\infty }(M)$. $\Omega^1 (\mathbb{R}^2)$ has basis $\{ dx, dy \}$.
I am looking for a rigorous calculation of the pullback of $dx$ to $\mathbb{R}$ by some smooth map $\phi : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$. Its basic but I want to do it rigorously.
I think $f dx$ should pull back to $p \mapsto f \circ \phi (p) \frac{\partial \phi_1 } {\partial t}(p) dt$ in $\Omega^1 (\mathbb{R})$, but I'm not sure.
If someone gives me a brief outline of how to do this calculation, I can fill in the details for myself.
Your guess is correct. If you just want a hint, try to use the following:
$1.$ Think about how the pullback interacts with an expression like $fdx$.
$2.$ Think about how the pullback acts on smooth functions.
$3.$ Think about how the pullback interacts with the exterior derivative $d$.
$4.$ Think about what the exterior derivative of a function locally looks like.
Spoiler below: