So I've always been highly suspicious of some of the draws in the champions league in the past & I'd love to calculate the probabilities but I can't do it myself. Can anyone help me? Specifically can someone help me find the probability of Arsenal playing Bayern four out of five seasons? First two times in the round of 16 (2012/2013 season & 2013/14 season) then in the group in 2015/2016 and again in the round of 16 in 2016/17. So basically four out of five seasons with only 2014/15 not included
Second: Chelsea vs PSG in the quarter final in 2013/14 and then in the round of 16 in 2014/15 and again in the round of 16 in 2015/16 so basically three seasons in a row.
If you could also calculate the probability of both of these happening that would be very impressive, thanks.
If you need help with all the possible scenarios please let me know & I'll try to link you.
I will not answer your question, but I will make some comments. You say that "I've always been highly suspicious of some of the draws in the champions league in the past", so my answer will be centered around this comment.
You ask: What is the probability of Arsenal playing Bayern four out of five seasons?
I don't believe that this is the question you want to ask. I am assuming that you are interested in figuring out, by looking at the data of the last draws, whether we have reason to suspect that the draws have been fixed in any way.
Furthermore I assume that you would be equally suspicious
Furthermore, there is some trouble with the data:
Further comments
There are undoubtedly even more things one should consider.
Conclusion: I think it would be more interesting to answer a question like this:
"Since the start of the current format of the Champions League, is there reason to believe that an unusually high number of pairs of teams have played eachother frequently?"
Here we of course have to specify what we consider "unusual" and "frequent".
From your question, it seems to me that you consider that 1 pairs of teams play eachother in 80% of the tournaments over a period of $5$ years in addition to 1 pair of teams playing eachother 100% of the tournaments over a period of $3$ years to be frequent. Perhaps someone will do the calculations and make a reasonable conclusion.