I am currently trying to optimize a problem.
$$\text{ArgMax}_x \log(1+f_1(x))-\log(1+f_2(x))$$
Due to the fact that $\log (x)$ is a monotonic increasing function, this is equivalent as to
$$\text{ArgMax}_x\ (1+f_1(x))/(1+f_2(x))$$
But my question is, is this equivalent as
$$\text{ArgMax}_x\ (1+f_1(x))-(1+f_2(x))\ ?$$
If it is not equivalent, can it be approximate?