I have a propositional formula:
$$(\neg p \lor \neg q \lor r)$$
Can i rewrite it in this way?:
$$(\neg p \lor \neg q \lor r) = (\neg p \lor (q \land \neg r))= (\neg p \lor q) \land (\neg p \lor \neg r))$$
I have a propositional formula:
$$(\neg p \lor \neg q \lor r)$$
Can i rewrite it in this way?:
$$(\neg p \lor \neg q \lor r) = (\neg p \lor (q \land \neg r))= (\neg p \lor q) \land (\neg p \lor \neg r))$$
No, that's incorrect. Specifically, the first claimed equality is wrong. For example, if $p$ is true and $q$ is false then $(\neg p\vee\neg q\vee r)$ is true but $(\neg p\vee (q\wedge\neg r))$ is false.
Per the comments, it seems that your goal is to convert your original formula into a $2$-CNF formula, that is, a conjunction of disjunctions of pairs of literals. This can't be done, for a very strong reason: