Suppose I have random variables $X$, $Y$ and $Z$, with $Z \sim N(0, \sigma^2)$ and $Y = kX + Z$, I am looking for a proof of the fact that$$f_{Y\mid X}(y\mid X = x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi} \sigma} \exp\left(\frac{-(y-kx)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right).$$
The only definition that I am aware for conditional distribution is that $$f_{Y\mid X}(y\mid X = x) = \frac{f_{X,Y}(x,y)}{f(x)}$$ and it is not obvious at all how the conclusion should follow from this definition. I suppose one should use some sort of change of variable formula.
Some updates:
I am asking this only because this formula is constantly used in statistics, for instance, it is used in section 3 probabilistic interpretation of this notes. But I feel quite confused about the way it is used and have no idea how it will follow naturally from the definition.
Pretty different approach but same result.
It is understood that independence between X an Y is to be assumed.
$$Z=Y-kX \sim N(0;\sigma^2)$$
$$\frac{Z}{\sigma}=\frac{Y-kX}{\sigma} \sim \Phi$$
Given a fixed $X=x$ we have
$$\frac{Y-kx}{\sigma} \sim \Phi$$
this is enough to show that $Y|X=x \sim N(kx;\sigma^2)$, that means
$f_{Y|X}(y|x)=\frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{1}{2\sigma^2}(y-kx)^2} $