I'm a student of economics but I have encountered a mathematical doubt while studying some material (nothing new!). I will try to present the question without any reference to economic concepts:
I have a curve which is shaped like a hill and a second curve on the same graph which is an upward sloping curve with a slight curvature at the start. The second curve is below the first one. The text states that the distance between the two curves is maximum at the point where the slopes of the two curves are equal. Why is that true?
Let the $2$ functions be $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. Then, we wish to find the point at which $f(x)-g(x)$ is maximum.
If we define $h(x) = f(x) - g(x)$, then the question becomes - find the $x$ at which $h(x)$ is maximum. Now, we know that this occurs at the maxima of the function, which are one of the points where $h'(x) = 0$, or where $f'(x) = g'(x)$. Thus, the distance between the $2$ functions is maximum when their slopes are equal.