Is it true, that if $U_{1}$ and $U_{2}$ are iid uniform distributed variables on $\left[-1,1\right]$, then the sum of $U_{1}^{2}$ and $U_{2}^{2}$ is still uniform distributed conditioned on the set that this sum is not greater than $1$? Other words:
$$X\dot{=}U_{1}^{2}+U_{2}^{2}|U_{1}^{2}+U_{2}^{2}\leq1\sim Uni\left[0,1\right]?$$
I've read this in a book and for first glance this hasn't been clear. I guess we have to compare some kind of “conditional charachteristic” functions to decide this question.
Yes, it is true. Let $U_1,U_2\sim U(0,1),Y_1 = U_1^2$, then $$f_Y(y_1)dy_1=f_U(u_1)du_1$$ $$f_Y(y_1)=f_U(u_1)\frac{du_1}{dy_1}=1\cdot \frac{1}{\frac{dy_1}{du_1}}=\frac{1}{2u_1}=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{y_1}},\quad 0< y_1\le 1$$
The density of $X=U_1^2+U_2^2$ is the convolution of $f_Y(y_1)$ with itself, and Wolfram alpha gives this result, from which we can see that the density $f_X(x)$ is constant when $0\le x\le 1$.
$$f_X(x|x\le 1)=\frac{f_X(x)\cdot \mathbf{1}_{[0,1]}(x)}{P(x\le 1)}=\mathbf{1}_{[0,1]}(x)$$
Note: I would like to add that it doesn't matter whether $U_1$ is uniform on $[0,1]$ or $[−1,1]$. If $U_1$ is uniform on $[−1,1]$, then $|U_1|$ is uniform on $[0,1]$, so $U_1^2=|U_1|^2$ still has the same distribution.