Let $X$ and $Z$ denote random variables; and define $Y$ as their weighted average, i.e. = $Y = \lambda X + (1 - \lambda)Z$ for some $\lambda \in [0, 1]$. Assume that $X$ and $Z$ are independently drawn from the same smooth distribution, with mean $\mathbb{E}[X] = \mathbb{E}[Z] = 0$. We are interested in the conditional expectation $\mathbb{E}[X|Y = y]$.
In the extreme case that $\lambda = 0$, $Y$ and $X$ are unrelated so $\mathbb{E}[X|Y = y] = \mathbb{E}[X] = 0$.
In the other extreme case that $\lambda = 1$, we have $Y = X$ so $\mathbb{E}[X|Y = y] = y$.
Given this, it is natural to conjecture that $|\mathbb{E}[X|Y = y]|$ is strictly increasing in $\lambda$. (Indeed, one may think that $\mathbb{E}[X|Y = y] = \lambda y$.) Is this true in general? If not, what are minimal assumptions on the distribution required to make this true?
The conjecture $$ \mathbb E[X|Y=y]=\lambda y $$ is not true in general.
Example.
When $X,Z$ are i.i.d and $N(0,1)$ then $Y$ is $N(0,\sigma^2)$ with $$\tag{1}\sigma^2=\lambda^2+(1-\lambda)^2\,.$$ Since $X$ and $Y$ have correlation $$\rho=\frac{\lambda}{\sigma}$$ their joint density is $$\tag{2} f(x,y)=\frac{1}{2\pi\sigma\sqrt{1-\rho^2}}\exp\Big(-\frac{\sigma^2x^2-2\sigma\rho xy+y^2}{2\sigma^2(1-\rho^2)}\Big)\,. $$ According to this answer $$\tag{3}\boxed{\quad \mathbb E[X|Y=y]=\rho\frac{y}{\sigma}=\frac{\lambda y}{\sigma^2}=\frac{\lambda y}{\lambda^2+(1-\lambda)^2}\,.\quad} $$ The function $\lambda\mapsto\frac{\lambda}{\lambda^2+(1-\lambda)^2}$ is not monotone. It has a maximum of approx. $1.21$ around $\lambda=0.70\,:$
Remark.
When $X,Y$ are i.i.d. and $N(0,1)$ and we change $Y$ slightly to $$\tag{4} Y'=\lambda X+\sqrt{1-\lambda^2}Z $$ then it is easy to see that $Y'$ is $N(0,1)$ and has correlation $\lambda$ with $X\,.$ Like before it follows now that the conjectured relationship $$ \mathbb E[X|Y'=y']=\lambda y' $$ holds because $\sigma^2$ is now one.