Let $V =$ {Person $A$ is affected by a specific virus} and $+ =$ {Person $A$ has tested positive for the virus}. Let also $T_1$ and $T_2$ be two distinct occurences of the same medical test (positive or negative). We are given that $P(V|+) = p,\ P(+|V) = q$ and $P(V) = v$.
Can we prove, using only the information specified above, that $T_1$ and $T_2$ are independent given $V$, namely
$$P(T_1 \cap T_2|V) = P(T_1|V)P(T_2|V)$$
For instance if $T_1$ and $T_2$ are both positive we would like to prove that $P(T_1 \cap T_2|V) = q^2$.
If not, under what conditions it can be reasonably assumed?
Edit: To give some more context, my question arises from an exercise that was asking to find the probability that a person gets a positive first test and a negative second, given that he has a specific virus. The author solved the exercise assuming conditional independence of the two tests, so I wondered if there is a proof for that.
"For instance if $T_1$ and $T_2$ are both positive we would like to prove that $P(T_1 \cap T_2|V) = q^2$"
In general,we certainly can't agree to assertions of this type.
I would say we could only make that assertion if both the sensitivity and specificity of the two tests are identical or near identical.
[ Sensitivity $= \frac{True\;positive}{True\;positive + False\; negative}$,
Specificity $ = \frac{True\; negative}{True\;negative + False\; positive}\quad\quad$]
Such situations are quite unlikely, that is why so called "gold standards" exist for different tests
P.S.
Please don't change your question after answer(s) have been received as it can invalidate posted answer(s)
$P(T_1\cap T_2 |V)$ is definitely not equal to $q^2$ as it implies that if the repeat test returns +, you are less sure that you have the disease.
It is not clear to me what you are driving at.
PPS:
It is best to take a simpler model where the test has an "accuracy", of , say, $90\,$% i.e. fraction of diseased people testing positive is $0.9$ and fraction of healthy people testing negative is also $0.9$.
Then, if two tests return positive,
it doesn't mean that P(diseased|positive twice) $= 0.9\cdot0.9$,
rather the probability is $1 -(1-0.9)^2$
In all the cross-correspondence, I had lost track of your original query, viz if two (same) tests give values of $p_1$ and $p_2$ for P(+|diseased), would the value be $p_1\cdot p_2$ ? No, it would be the simple average $\large\frac{p_1+p_2}{2}$