I am looking for a proof of what should be a trivial fact:
Let $(\Omega, \mathcal F, P)$ be a probability space and $\tilde x, \tilde y, \tilde z$ be random variables on the measurable space $(X, \mathcal A)$. Let another measurable space $(Y, \mathcal B)$. Suppose that $(X, \mathcal A)$ and $(Y, \mathcal B)$ are isomorphic as measurable spaces, and let $X \xrightarrow{\pi}Y$ be the isomorphism with $E=\pi^{-1}$. Define the random variables $(x,y,z)=\pi(\tilde x, \tilde y, \tilde z)$ on $(Y, \mathcal B)$. If $\tilde x, \tilde y$ are conditionally independent given $\tilde z$, then $x, y$ are conditionally independent given $z$.
My attempt so far, given $C,D \in \mathcal B$:
$$P(x\in C, y\in D \mid z) = \mathbb E [1_C(x)1_D(y) \mid z]= \mathbb E [1_{\pi^{-1}C}(\tilde x)1_{\pi^{-1}D}(\tilde y) \mid \pi \tilde z] =\mathbb E [ \mathbb E [1_{\pi^{-1}C}(\tilde x)1_{\pi^{-1}D}(\tilde y) \mid \tilde z]\mid \pi \tilde z]=\mathbb E [ \mathbb E [1_{\pi^{-1}C}(\tilde x)\mid \tilde z]\mathbb E [1_{\pi^{-1}D}(\tilde y) \mid \tilde z]\mid \pi \tilde z]=\mathbb E [ \mathbb E [1_{C}(x)\mid E z]\mathbb E [1_{D}( y) \mid E z]\mid z]=\mathbb E [1_{C}(x)\mid E z]\mathbb E [1_{D}( y) \mid E z]=P(x\in C\mid \tilde z) P( y\in D \mid \tilde z)$$
And I cannot replace $\tilde z$ by $z$ in the latter.
Any help or pointers are welcome.
Conditioning with respect to a random variable is defined in terms of conditioning with respect to the $\sigma$-algebra it generates. What you want to show then is that under these conditions the $\sigma$-algebra generated by $z$ and $\tilde{z}$ are the same. For this you will need that $\pi$ is measurable-- i.e. $\pi$ is a Borel-isomorphism. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Borel_isomorphism