Example if:
rate(A | B) = 10/180 x 100% ≈ 6%, rate(not A | B) = 170/180 x 100% ≈ 94%
Since rate(A | B) < rate(not A | B), is there association between A and B just based on the statements above?
I understand that if rate(A | B) < rate(A |not B), then there is a negative association with A and B. What about rate(A | B) < rate(not A | B)?
I appreciate any help. Thanks!
Let's suppose $\Pr(A | B) < \Pr(\neg A | B)$. Then, using Baye's theorem gives $$\Pr(B|A)\cdot\Pr(A)<\Pr(B|\neg A)\cdot\Pr(\neg A).$$ So we can see that the inequality might hold regardless of the relationship between $B$ and $A$. For example, if $A$ and $B$ are independent and $\Pr(A)<\Pr(\neg A)$, then it will hold. But it will also hold if $A$ and $B$ are negatively correlated and $\Pr(A)\leq\Pr(\neg A)$, as well as if $A$ and $B$ are positively correlated and $\Pr(A)\ll\Pr(\neg A)$, and other cases, too.