Suppose that $X\sim N(0, 1)$. Then $P(X<2)=\Phi(2)$. Suppose now that $Y_n$ is a sequence of random variables so that $Y_n\xrightarrow{p} 2$. I think that the following statement holds $$P(X<Y_n)\rightarrow P(X<2)$$
Proof: Since $\Phi$ is continuous, apply it to two sides of $Y_n\xrightarrow{p} 2$, leading $$\Phi(Y_n) \xrightarrow{p} \Phi(2)$$ By definition of $\Phi$, it follows that $$P(X<Y_n)\xrightarrow{p} P(X<2)$$ Note: convergence of a sequence of real numbers.
I am now confused.
- Can I write $P(X<Y_n)=\Phi(Y_n)$?
- Can I just simply throw $p$ away in the last statement because it involves only real numbers?
No. the left side is a number and right side is a random variable.
$P(X<Y_n)\xrightarrow{p} P(X<2)$ does not even make sense. $\xrightarrow{p} $ is for random variables, not for constants. But if you treat constants as r.v's, yes, you can drop the $p$ above the arrow.
Here is a valid proof of the statement: $$P(X<Y_n) \leq P(X<2+\epsilon)+P(Y_n >2+\epsilon) \to \Phi (2+\epsilon)+0$$ and
$$P(X<2-\epsilon) \leq P(Y_n<2-\epsilon)+P(X<Y_n) .$$ So $$P(X<Y_n)\geq P(X<2-\epsilon)-P(Y_n<2-\epsilon) \to \Phi (2-\epsilon)-0.$$ Now finish the proof using continuity of $\Phi$.