Consider random vectors $(x^n), x \in \mathbb{R}^q$ defined on a probability space $(\Omega,A,\mathbb{P})$. Show if $x^n \overset{d}{\rightarrow} x $, it holds for any closed set $C$ that $$ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup \mathbb{P} (x^n \in C) \leq \mathbb{P}(x \in C) $$
My thoughts:
So obviously we have to use $x^n \overset{d}{\rightarrow} x $. So here is the definition of convergence in distribution:
We say that $(x^n) \in \mathbb{R}^q$ converges in distribution to $x \in \mathbb{R}^q$ if for the corresponding distribution functions $F_n$ and $F$, respectively, and for every continuity point $a \in \mathbb{R}^q$ of $F$, it holds that $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} F_n(a) = F(a)$ .
And $C$ closed means that $C^c$ ( complement of $C$ ) is open. Maybe this could be helpful? Maybe we could show $ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \inf \mathbb{P} (x^n \in O) \geq \mathbb{P}(x \in O) $ ( $O$ open set ) to verify the claim above. But how can I show it? And how can I use it to show $ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup \mathbb{P} (x^n \in C) \leq \mathbb{P}(x \in C) $ ? I know that $C$ is closed if and only if $C^c$ is open. Moreover I know that $\mathbb{P(A)} = 1-\mathbb{P(A^c)} $. Or do you have another simple idea to solve this exercise?
Update: I've almost showed that $ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \inf \mathbb{P} (x^n \in O) \geq \mathbb{P}(x \in O) $, can someone explain me why $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \inf \mathbb{1}_O(x^n) \geq 1_O(x) $ is true for an open set $O$? My assumption that $ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \inf \mathbb{P} (x^n \in O) \geq \mathbb{P}(x \in O) $ ( $O$ open ) implies $ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup \mathbb{P} (x^n \in C) \leq \mathbb{P}(x \in C) $. According to a lecture I found : This follows upon noting that $C$ is closed if and only if $C^c$ is open, and that $\mathbb{P}(C) = 1 − \mathbb{P}(C^c)$ Can someone explain me this in detail?
The updated part can be regarded as the dual version of the proposition. For clarity, I state and prove it as follows.
Let $O\subseteq\mathbb{R}^{d}$ be an open subset. Then $\liminf_{n}P\left(\left[X_{n}\in O\right]\right)\geq P\left(\left[X\in O\right]\right)$.
Proof : Let $C=\mathbb{R}^{d}\setminus O$, then $C$ is a closed set. Note that $\mu_{n}(O)=1-\mu_{n}(C)$ and $\mu(O)=1-\mu(C)$. We have that: \begin{eqnarray*} \liminf_{n}\mu_{n}(O) & = & \liminf_{n}\left(1-\mu_{n}(C)\right)\\ & = & 1+\liminf_{n}\left(-\mu_{n}(C)\right)\\ & = & 1-\limsup_{n}\mu_{n}(C)\\ & \geq & 1-\mu(C)\\ & = & \mu(O). \end{eqnarray*} That is, $\liminf_{n}P\left(\left[X_{n}\in O\right]\right)\geq P\left(\left[X\in O\right]\right)$.